232 Test Questions with Answers and Explanations in Medical Psychology

45. All of the following belong to the methods of investigation in clinical psychology except one:

• pathopsychological examination
• clinical interviewing
• neuropsychological examination
• testing of individual psychological characteristics
• +: amytal-caffeine disinhibition

46. The pictogram method is used for studying:

• +: memory
• attention
• intelligence
• emotions
• consciousness

47. The combination of behavioral, motivational, and cognitive features of a patient's mental activity, expressed in psychological terms, is called:

• a psychopathological symptom
• a psychopathological syndrome
• +: a pathopsychological syndrome
• a pathopsychological symptom
• a pathopsychological phenomenon

48. Emotional-volitional disorders, disruption of the structure and hierarchy of motives, inadequate self-esteem and level of aspirations, thinking disorders in the form of "relative affective dementia," and impaired prognosis and reliance on past experience are part of the structure of:

• schizophrenic symptom complex
• neurotic symptom complex
• +: psychopathic symptom complex
• organic symptom complex
• oligophrenic symptom complex

49. Which is not one of the primary colors of the Luscher test:

• yellow
• red
• blue
• green
• +: brown

50. Reliance in thinking on latent features revealed while carrying out the "pictogram" technique indicates the presence of:

• +: schizophrenic symptom complex
• neurotic symptom complex
• psychopathic symptom complex
• organic symptom complex
• oligophrenic symptom complex

51. The Luscher test is used to assess:

• the degree of mnestic (memory) impairment
• the degree of intellectual development
• thinking characteristics
• clarity of consciousness
• +: emotional experiences

52. A study aimed at assessing the state of higher mental functions and the features of hemispheric asymmetry functioning is called:

• +: neuropsychological
• pathopsychological
• psychopathological
• psychiatric
• psychosomatic

53. The satiation phenomenon is associated with the following:

• +: attitude toward the task
• warming up to the task
• practice effects
• exhaustibility
• rigidity

54. The ability to recognize presented objects by touch is called:

• tactility
• +: stereognosis
• empathy
• reflection
• agnosia

55. The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory allows one to reveal:

• neuropsychological symptoms
• +: pathopsychological phenomena
• +: a personality profile
• temperament traits
• intellectual abilities

56. Assessment of affective rigidity according to MMPI data is done using:

• scale 1
• scale 3
• scale 5
• +: scale 6
• scale 9

57. All the following techniques are related to methods for studying attention, except one:

• +: pictogram
• the Schulte test
• the proofreading (cancellation) test
• the Raven test
• the Munsterberg technique

58. The evaluation of the effectiveness of psychological methods of influence on a person includes all of the following criteria except one:

• +: the criterion of the degree of symptomatic improvement
• the criterion of the degree of awareness of the psychological mechanisms of the illness
• the criterion of the degree of change in disturbed personal relationships
• the criterion of the degree of improvement in partner (sexual) relationships
• the criterion of the degree of improvement in social functioning

59. A patient's verbal and nonverbal intelligence can be revealed using:

• +: the Wechsler test
• the Rorschach test
• +: the Cattell test
• the Raven test
• the Eysenck test

60. The right (non-dominant) hemisphere of the brain is associated with:

• arithmetic abilities
• logical thinking
• +: perception of body image and visual-spatial orientation
• speech
• vision

61. Deep lesions of the frontal lobes lead primarily to impairment of:

• +: voluntariness and purposefulness of activity
• vision
• hearing
• +: motor skills
• sensitivity

Beginning of form

62. which of the criteria listed below is one of the most significant diagnostic criteria for distinguishing psychotic from non-psychotic mental disorders:

• the duration of the disorders
• the subjective severity of the disorders
• +: lack of critical awareness of the disorders
• the connection of the disorders with individual psychological characteristics
• the resistance of the disorders to therapy

63. Mental reactions, states, and developments caused by hereditary-constitutional causes belong to one of the following types of mental response:

• exogenous
• +: endogenous
• psychogenic
• personal
• mixed

64. With introversion, in contrast to autism, the following is generally observed:

• +: critical awareness of one's own withdrawal/closedness
• less pronounced withdrawal
• absence of hallucinations
• absence of delusional ideas
• lack of critical awareness of one's own withdrawal/closedness

65. All of the following belong to disturbances of the emotional sphere except one:

• depression
• explosiveness of emotions
• euphoria
• +: reasoning/rationalization (resonerstvo)
• stress

66. Exclude the item in which a pathopsychological syndrome is NOT listed:

• schizophrenic
• oligophrenic
• psychogenic-neurotic
• +: neuropsychological
• exogenous-organic

67. In the course of working with a patient, the psychologist may use:

• leading questions:
• prompting
• approval
• demonstrating the solution to similar tasks
• +: all of the above are correct

68. The Zeigarnik effect relates to which psychological process:

• attention
• +: memory
• emotions
• thinking
• will

69. The minimum magnitude of a stimulus that causes a barely noticeable sensation is called:

• the absolute upper threshold of sensation
• +: the absolute lower threshold of sensation (threshold of sensitivity), the pain threshold
• the differential threshold of sensation
• the operative threshold of sensation

70. As a result of perception, all of the following properties of an image are formed except:

• objectivity
• categoriality
• wholeness
• +: uniqueness
• constancy

71. Attention possesses all of the following properties except:

• stability
• concentration
• distribution
• +: duration
• span/volume

72. The subjective attitude toward an illness is called:

• anosognosia
• +: the internal picture of the illness
• hypochondria
• reflection
• egocentrism

73. The pain sensitivity threshold is lower:

• +: in women
• in men
• no differences are found
• in women with predominant feminine traits
• in women with increased masculinization

74. Dysmorphomania belongs to mental experiences specific to:

• adults
• the elderly
• children
• +: adolescents
• all of the above are correct

75. A.R. Luria gives an example of a patient looking at an image of glasses (spectacles) – he is confused and doesn't understand what is depicted: "A circle…and another circle…and a stick…and a crossbar…it must be a bicycle…". This is an example of a disorder of:

• confusion
• +: visual agnosia
• fragmentation of speech
• disorders of voluntary memory

76. With disorders of higher mental functions, symptoms:

• directly indicate the localization of functions in the nervous apparatus
• do not allow one to draw a direct conclusion about the localization of functions
• allow a conclusion about localization only on the basis of psychological analysis of the symptoms themselves
• always represent the simplest atomic psychological phenomena

77. The absence of awareness of one's own defects and illnesses is: ____

• +: anosognosia
• apathy
• abulia

78. The restructuring of functional systems through specially designed rehabilitative training to restore higher mental functions was developed by:

• L.S. Vygotsky
• +: A.R. Luria
• V.M. Bekhterev
• E. Kraepelin

79. The theory of brain blocks belongs to:

• B.V. Zeigarnik
• I.M. Sechenov
• +: A.R. Luria
• V.M. Bekhterev

80. Massive lesions of the frontal lobes lead primarily to disruption of those complex forms of regulation of conscious activity that:

• are not connected to voluntary intentions
• are deeply entrenched in individual experience
• +: are directed by the activating influence of motives formed with the help of speech
• realize instinctive urges

81. "Flashback effects" in post-traumatic stress disorder are most likely associated with:

• : -mechanisms of the left hemisphere
• +: mechanisms of the right hemisphere
• mechanisms of reticular activation
• frontal paroxysms

82. According to A.R. Luria, three main blocks can be identified that participate in any mental activity:

• +: the block that ensures the regulation of tone or wakefulness
• +: the block for receiving, processing, and storing information coming from the external world
• the block for receiving, processing, and storing information coming from the internal world
• +: the block for programming, control, and regulation of mental activity

V3: Psychological studies in the clinic of somatic illnesses

83. The statement that correctly describes the differences between somatoform disorders and psychosomatic illnesses:

• somatoform disorders are more severe than psychosomatic illnesses
• somatoform disorders fit within nosological frameworks, while psychosomatic ones fit within syndromic frameworks
• somatoform disorders are mental disorders that include somatic symptoms, while psychosomatic illnesses are somatic disorders that include mental disturbances
• +: in somatoform disorders, there are no corresponding morphological changes, while in psychosomatic illnesses objective changes are found, in whose origin a psychological factor participates

84. Special studies give grounds to suppose that stress can cause a somatic disorder:

• through conversion mechanisms
• by reducing the activity of the sympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system
• +: by stimulating the production of hormones that reduce the activity of the immune system
• by blocking the production of testosterone

85. The theory of psychosomatic illnesses in which the bodily "self" is regarded as a "projection" of mental problems onto the bodily sphere is called

• +: psychoanalytic
• neurophysiological
• neurobiological
• alexithymic

86. The classification of disorders considered psychogenic in ICD-10 is based primarily on:

• features of etiopathogenesis
• clinical-physiological criteria
• +: clinical phenomenology
• prognostic criteria

87. People with Type "A" behavior are at risk of developing:

• oncological diseases
• +: coronary heart disease
• bronchial asthma
• peptic ulcer disease

88. The internal picture of illness of the ergopathic type belongs to

• normal illness perception (normonosognosia)
• overestimation of illness (hypernosognosia)
• +: denial of illness (anosognosia)
• underestimation of illness (hyponosognosia)

89. The internal picture of illness of the melancholic type belongs to

• normonosognosia
• +: hypernosognosia
• anosognosia
• hyponosognosia

90. The formation of the internal picture of illness is influenced by:

• age
• social status
• severity of the illness
• the patient's awareness about the illness
• +: all of the above

V3: Psychological counseling, correction, and psychotherapy

91. Following S. Freud, R. May defined the main quality of a good counselor as:

• +: the capacity for empathy
• the ability to attract people
• the ability to learn from practice
• professional training

92. If we analyze what is common among psychotherapists of different schools and orientations, it turns out to be:

• the role of empathy
• working with transference
• +: the development of a collaborative relationship between the therapist and the client
• suggestion as the basis of the effect

93. A combination of individual and group psychotherapy:

• +: is useful due to their mutual complementarity
• is advisable since they perform a function of mutual control
• is inadvisable due to the differences in their mechanisms of action
• is indicated for a very limited circle of patients

94. Formulated and developed the person-centered approach:

• A. Ellis
• K. Horney
• S. Freud
• +: C. Rogers
• R. May

95. The approach asserting that indirect reinforcement can influence behavior:

• systemic family therapy
• +: social learning theory
• humanistic therapy
• psychoanalysis

96. The direction in psychotherapy represented by A. Beck:

• behavioral therapy
• person-centered therapy
• +: cognitive therapy
• psychodynamic therapy

97. The direction in psychotherapy represented by F. Perls:

• behavioral therapy
• person-centered therapy
• +: gestalt therapy
• psychodynamic therapy

98. The direction in psychotherapy represented by Ellis:

• behavioral therapy
• person-centered therapy
• cognitive therapy
• +: rational-emotive therapy

99. The direction in psychotherapy represented by S. Grof:

• behavioral therapy
• person-centered therapy
• +: transpersonal therapy
• psychodynamic therapy

100. The direction in psychotherapy represented by C. Jung:

• behavioral therapy
• person-centered therapy
• cognitive therapy
• +: psychodynamic therapy

101. A psychotherapist tries to help a young man develop rational alternatives to the thought that, ever since his girlfriend left him, all women feel hatred toward him. The psychotherapist is acting within the framework of:

• +: cognitive therapy
• behavioral therapy
• psychodynamic therapy
• humanistic therapy

102. Representatives of the direction in psychotherapy interested in determining the functional links between external events and a patient's behavior:

• psychodynamic
• +: behavioral
• existential
• -cognitive

TESTS

Variant 1

1. The choice of techniques for a pathopsychological examination is influenced by:

• a) the purpose of the study
• b) the client's education and life experience
• c) the state at the time of the examination
• d) the client's diagnosis
• e) all of the above are correct

2. The psychologist should become familiar with materials on the patient's life and medical history:

• a) before the examination
• b) this information is not important at all
• c) after the examination
• d) only from conversation with the patient
• e) all of the above are correct

3. The patient's attitude toward the examination…… (exclude the incorrect option)

• a) affects the results of the work
• b) should be taken into account when interpreting the results
• c) affects the course of the examination
• d) is always clearly visible
• e) affects contact with the examiner

4. The purpose of using psychological examination in clinical work is most accurately described in the item:

• a) for selecting medications
• b) for working with the patient's relatives
• c) for choosing the dose of medication
• d) for diagnostic purposes
• e) all of the above are correct

5. Which type of examination is most appropriate for studying behavior, memory, perception, thinking, and emotion

• a) standard interview
• b) self-report
• c) tests
• d) projective techniques
• e) all of the above are correct

6. A decrease in the level of generalization is possible with all of the following disorders except….

• a) mental retardation
• b) epilepsy
• c) the consequences of traumatic brain injury
• d) neuroses
• e) imbecility

7. The essence of the "Zeigarnik effect":

• a) unfinished actions are best remembered and reproduced
• b) completed actions are best remembered and reproduced
• c) the relationship between anxiety and attention
• d) memory impairment in oligophrenia
• e) decreased intelligence

8. Which statement formulates the most precise definition of the subject of pathopsychology (according to B.V. Zeigarnik):

• a) the patterns of normal psychic functioning
• b) the patterns of manifestations of disorders of mental activity in childhood
• c) the principles and patterns of creating experimental models of behavior
• d) the patterns of disintegration of mental activity and personality traits compared with the patterns of formation and course of mental processes in normal conditions
• e) carrying out diagnostic work

9. One of the fundamental principles of pathopsychological examination is:

• a) quantitative analysis of individual functions
• b) systemic, qualitative analysis of the disorders of mental activity under study
• c) analysis of personality traits
• d) analysis of thinking
• e) all of the above are correct

10. Who proposed studying memory and thinking using the "Pictogram" method:

• a) Rubinstein
• b) Luria
• c) Zeigarnik
• d) Ribot
• e) Leontiev

11. The Schulte Tables are intended for studying:

• a) perception
• b) attention
• c) thinking
• d) speech
• e) vision

12. Which item lists the techniques best suited to reveal thinking disorders:

• a) TAT and CAT
• b) the Rorschach test
• c) the family drawing
• d) classification and object exclusion
• e) the Kraepelin counting test

13. The "Relating proverbs, sayings, and phrases" technique is aimed at diagnosing:

• a) the zone of proximal development
• b) attention
• c) thinking
• d) speech
• e) writing

14. "Attitude toward illness" can also be called:

• a) the internal picture of illness
• b) experiencing illness
• c) position toward illness
• d) realism in perceiving symptoms
• e) all of the above are correct

15. Intermediate, mixed, and amalgam types of character accentuation were identified by:

• a) Freud
• b) Lichko
• c) Rogers
• d) Luria
• e) Shmishek

16. Which of the colors in the Luscher test is not a primary color:

• a) blue
• b) green
• c) brown
• d) yellow
• e) red

17. Examination of the psychological state includes all items except…

• a) medical history
• b) state of intellect
• c) state of consciousness
• d) state of the affective sphere
• e) state of motivation

18. Which of the following is NOT a manifestation of normativity in a psychological examination situation:

• a) the tendency to give socially desirable answers
• b) precise compliance with task instructions
• c) performing tasks in accordance with one's own idea of the "norm"
• d) the motive of expertise
• e) all of the above are incorrect

19. Which of the following phenomena is the satiation phenomenon most often associated with:

• a) attitude toward the task
• b) warming up to the task
• c) practice effects
• d) exhaustibility
• e) rigidity

20. In healthy people, the introduction of mediation operations…..

• a) worsens memorization
• b) does not affect memorization
• c) improves memorization
• d) leads to forgetting
• e) speeds up thinking

21. A tendency to worry about various matters on the MMPI questionnaire will produce high scores on the…. scale

• a) psychasthenia
• b) schizophrenia
• c) hypomania
• d) paranoia
• e) hypochondria

22. The Luscher test is used to assess:

• a) the degree of mnestic (memory) impairment
• b) the degree of intellectual development
• c) thinking characteristics
• d) clarity of consciousness
• e) emotional experiences

23. The validity of the MMPI personality profile is determined by the scale:

a) the validity scales

• b) hypochondria
• c) anxiety
• d) psychasthenia
• e) hypomania

24. Which test has three validity scales and 10 clinical scales?

• a) the Wechsler test
• b) the Rorschach test
• c) MMPI
• d) the Cattell test
• e) the Rosenzweig test

25 A client's verbal and nonverbal intelligence can be revealed by:

• a) the Rorschach test
• b) the Wechsler test
• c) the House-Tree-Person test (HTP)
• d) the Cattell test
• e) classification

26. Reliance in thinking on latent features revealed while carrying out the "pictogram" technique indicates the presence of:

• a) schizophrenic symptom complex
• b) neurotic symptom complex
• c) psychopathic symptom complex
• d) organic symptom complex
• e) oligophrenic symptom complex

27. Assessment of affective rigidity according to MMPI data is done using:

• a) scale 1
• b) scale 2
• c) scale 5
• d) scale 6
• e) scale 9

28. All the following techniques relate to methods for studying attention, except one:

• a) pictograms
• b) the Schulte test
• c) the proofreading (cancellation) test
• d) the Raven test
• e) the Munsterberg technique

29. According to Svyadoshch's definition, suggestion is:

• a) imposing one's will on another person
• b) indirect persuasion
• c) the transmission of information that is perceived without criticism and influences the course of mental processes
• d) information intervention
• e) hypnotic influence

30. All of the following belong to the methods of investigation in clinical psychology, except one:

• a) pathopsychological examination
• b) clinical interviewing
• c) neuropsychological examination
• d) testing of individual psychological characteristics
• e) amytal-caffeine disinhibition.

Variant 2

1. Which does NOT belong to disturbances of the emotional sphere

• a) Depression
• b) Explosiveness of emotions
• c) Euphoria
• d) Reasoning/rationalization (resonerstvo)
• e) lability

2. Exclude the item in which a pathopsychological syndrome is NOT listed.

• a) schizophrenic
• b) oligophrenic
• c) psychogenic-neurotic
• d) neuropsychological

e) catatonic

3. In the course of working with a patient during a pathopsychological examination, one may use:

• a) leading questions
• b) prompting
• c) demonstrating the solution to similar tasks
• d) assistance
• e) all of the above are correct

4. Which does NOT belong to techniques for studying attention and sensorimotor functions:

• a) the Kraepelin counting test
• b) the Schulte tables
• c) the TAT technique
• d) the proofreading (cancellation) test
• e) the Munsterberg technique

The Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) is a projective psychodiagnostic technique developed in the 1930s at Harvard by Henry Murray and Christiana Morgan. The purpose of the technique was to study the driving forces of personality — internal conflicts, drives, interests, and motives. After World War II, the test came into wide use by psychoanalysts and clinicians for working with disturbances in patients' emotional sphere.

Henry Murray himself defines the TAT as follows: "The Thematic Apperception Test, better known as the TAT, is a method by which one can reveal the dominant drives, emotions, sentiments, complexes, and conflicts of a personality, and which helps to determine the level of latent tendencies that the subject or patient conceals or cannot show due to their being unconscious"

— Henry A Murray. Thematic apperception test. — Cambridge, Mass: Harvard University Press, 1943

5. Inference belongs to:

• a) mental operations
• b) mental processes
• c) mental factors
• d) mental types
• e) mental mechanisms

6. Attention possesses all of the following properties except:

• a) stability
• b) concentration
• c) distribution
• d) duration
• e) span/volume

37. Enthusiasm for gambling is called:

• a) workaholism
• b) fetishism
• c) karting
• d) surfing
• e) gambling addiction

7. Especially pronounced emotional states of a person, accompanied by significant changes in behavior, are called:

• a) stresses
• b) frustrations
• c) feelings
• d) affects
• e) psychological traumas

8. The process of a subject's self-knowledge of internal mental acts and states, as well as the formation of an idea of how others truly relate to the subject, is called:

• a) self-actualization
• b) self-esteem
• c) attribution
• d) hypochondria
• e) reflection

9. When performing the Benton test to study memorization, the subject is asked to:

• a) copy the drawings after being shown them
• b) compose a story
• c) answer questions
• d) divide the drawing into parts
• e) find the missing fragment of the displayed image

10. When performing tests, "organic"-type errors include all of the following except

• a) exhaustibility
• b) uneven pace of work
• c) inattentiveness
• d) thinking disorders of the type of distortion of the processes of generalization and abstraction
• e) thinking disorders of the type of reduction of the processes of generalization and abstraction

11. The Zeigarnik effect relates to which psychological process:

• a) attention
• b) memory
• c) emotions
• d) thinking
• e) will

12. Failure to understand the hidden, figurative meaning of proverbs and sayings is most often found with the following disorder:

• a) Neurosis
• b) mental retardation
• c) Phobia
• d) depression
• e) character accentuation

13. Which of the descriptions given corresponds to euphoria?

• a) lowered mood
• b) apathy
• c) split personality
• d) carefree, untroubled contentment, an experience of well-being
• e) agitated anxiety

14. The use of persuasion in the correction of neuroses can be attributed to …

• a) gestalt therapy
• b) rational psychotherapy
• c) art therapy
• d) dance therapy
• e) body-oriented therapy

15. Dysphoria is:

• a) a feeling of sadness in depression
• b) a gloomy, irritable, lowered mood
• c) an unstable mood
• d) indifference
• e) apathy

16. A father tells his child, "Turn off the radio," and the child repeats back: "Radio." This is an example of:

• a) logophasia
• b) euphoria
• c) echolalia
• d) reaction
• e) projection

17. Reasoning/rationalization (resonerstvo) and diffuseness of thinking are characteristic of…

• a) schizophrenia
• b) epilepsy
• c) mental retardation
• d) neuroses
• e) childhood autism (early infantile autism)

49. The subjective attitude toward an illness is called:

• a) anosognosia
• b) the internal picture of the illness
• c) hypochondria
• d) reflection
• e) egocentrism

18. Filling gaps in memory with fabricated things and events is called:

• a) falsification
• b) confabulation
• c) regression
• d) autism
• e) illusion of perception

51. For children, adolescents, and young people, the most psychologically difficult conditions turn out to be:

• a) sexual disorders
• b) illnesses that alter one's appearance
• c) cancer
• d) heart attack
• e) stroke

19. The inability to recognize familiar objects while the ability to distinguish their basic elements is preserved is:

• a) apraxia
• b) gnosiopathy
• c) stereotypy
• d) agnosia
• e) phobia

20 Aphasia is:

• a) a speech disorder
• b) the inability to recognize familiar things
• c) a sleep disorder
• d) a thinking disorder
• e) a perceptual disorder

21. Alexia is:

• a) poverty of vocabulary
• b) the inability to find the right word
• c) a reading disorder
• d) a disorder of consciousness
• e) none of the above is correct

22. The patient understands well the request to touch the tip of the nose with the index finger, but cannot carry it out. This is:

• a) hypoxia
• b) apraxia
• c) agnosia
• d) phobia
• e) anosognosia

23. The term "dementia" means:

• a) a profound degree of feeble-mindedness (debility)
• b) acquired intellectual decline
• c) a profound degree of oligophrenia
• d) traumatic brain injury
• e) motivational disorders of thinking

24. Minor epileptic seizures, known as Petit Mal, are called

• a) ​absence seizure
• b) stupor of consciousness (obnubilation)
• c) coma
• d) delirium
• e) catatonia

25. Which does NOT belong to types of dysontogenesis:

• a) mental underdevelopment
• b) delayed mental development
• c) abnormal development
• d) disharmonious mental development
• e) distorted mental development

26. Which does NOT belong to the causes of oligophrenia:

• a) chromosomal pathology
• b) infections during the mother's pregnancy
• c) illnesses suffered before the age of 3
• d) illnesses suffered during adolescence
• e) the effects of radiation exposure

27. A pathological, irresistible urge to wander is called:

• a) dipsomania
• b) dromomania
• c) kleptomania
• d) pyromania
• e) bulimia

28. In intellectual disability, according to the definition of most scientists, the leading disorder is

• a) ​total underdevelopment of all mental functions
• b) inattentiveness
• c) disorders of self-esteem
• d) speech disorder
• e) character accentuation

29. Tests for determining character accentuation were developed by:

• a) Eysenck and Wechsler
• b) Luscher and Freud
• c) Rorschach and Luscher
• d) Shmishek and Lichko
• e) Luria and Vygotsky

30. Pathological polysemanticism, in which words begin to acquire multiple meanings and the semantic structure of a word is often loosened, occurs more often in:

• a) neurotic disorders
• b) personality (psychopathic) disorders
• c) schizophrenic disorders
• d) epileptic disorders
• e) dementia

31. The patient answers questions asked of them as if "half asleep," often without grasping the content, is slowed in movement, indifferent, and silent. This disorder of consciousness is called:

• a) clouding/obtundation
• b) delirium
• c) coma
• d) oneiroid state
• e) stupor

32. The branch of medical psychology that studies the influence of psychological factors on the occurrence of somatic illnesses

• a) neuropsychology
• b) psychosomatics
• c) psychohygiene
• d) deontology
• e) pathopsychology

33. When performing the "Exclusion" technique, the subject makes generalizations based on non-essential, formal, latent features - this is characteristic of:

• a) mania
• b) depression
• c) neurosis
• d) schizophrenia
• e) oligophrenia

34. Cancerophobia is:

• a) an obsessive fear of getting cancer
• b) an obsessive fear of getting any illness
• c) an overvalued idea that one has a cancerous tumor
• d) a dominant idea that one has a cancerous tumor
• e) all of the above are correct

35. Which of the following characteristics does NOT describe "resonerstvo" (empty reasoning):

• a) loss of purposefulness
• b) verbosity
• c) torpidity of thinking
• d) inadequacy in the choice of the object of discussion
• e) inadequate pathos in statements

36. The uniqueness of the combination of various traits and qualities of a person is denoted by the term:

• a) temperament
• b) character
• c) personality
• d) individual
• e) individuality

37. Increased suspiciousness combined with a tendency to form overvalued ideas is part of the structure of:

• a) hysterical character traits
• b) schizoid character traits
• c) psychasthenic character traits
• d) paranoid character traits
• e) epileptoid character traits

38. In the "Classification" technique, the subject groups together "wardrobe, a shoe with a shoelace" with the words: "Similarity! These are objects with a hole, with nails and screws." Responses of this type are characteristic of:

• a) manic-depressive psychosis (MDP)
• b) schizophrenia
• c) epilepsy
• d) oligophrenia
• e) neurosis

39. Increased suspiciousness combined with a tendency to form overvalued ideas is part of the structure of:

• a) hysterical character traits
• b) schizoid character traits
• c) psychasthenic character traits
• d) paranoid character traits
• e) epileptoid character traits

40. The concept of a harmonious personality includes all of the following except:

• a) kindness
• b) responsibility
• c) independence
• d) morality
• e) autonomy

41. A tendency toward increased neatness is part of the structure of:

• a) hysterical character traits
• b) schizoid character traits
• c) psychasthenic character traits
• d) paranoid character traits
• e) epileptoid character traits

42. Mental reactions, states, and developments caused by hereditary-constitutional causes belong to one of the following types of mental response:

• a) exogenous
• b) endogenous
• c) psychogenic
• d) personal
• e) neurogenic

43. Similar in terms of emotionality (impressionability) are:

• a) choleric and phlegmatic
• b) choleric and sanguine
• c) melancholic and sanguine
• d) choleric and phlegmatic
• e) sanguine and phlegmatic

44. The subject has an elevated mood and sense of well-being, psychomotor agitation, talks constantly, jokes, and is excessively distractible - this is characteristic of:

• a) mania
• b) depression
• c) inconsistency
• d) delusion
• e) hallucination

45. Phenomena of inertia of thinking are most often observed in…..

• a) schizophrenia
• b) epilepsy
• c) mania
• d) neurosis
• e) manic-depressive psychosis

46. Which does NOT correspond to inertia of thinking:

• a) difficulty switching from one task to another
• b) slowed pace of work
• c) depression
• d) thoroughness of judgments
• e) difficulty concentrating attention

47. The loss of control over one's own actions and the absence of error correction is:

• a) impairment of generalization
• b) impairment of critical judgment
• c) impairment of perception
• d) impairment of memory
• e) impairment of behavior

48. Functional disorders of mental activity arising as a result of psychological trauma and amenable to correction are

• a) schizophrenia
• b) epilepsy
• c) psychogenic reactions
• d) oligophrenia
• e) paranoia

49. Insufficient satisfaction of certain needs is called:

• a) acceleration
• b) deprivation
• c) autism
• d) isolation
• e) mutism

50. Increased emotional sensitivity is:

• a) ​sensitivity (heightened emotional sensitivity)
• b) anxiety
• c) autization
• d) lability
• e) euphoria

51. Insufficient control and supervision of a child's behavior is characteristic of the ….. type of upbringing

• a) ​hypoprotection (neglectful upbringing)
• b) hyperprotection (overprotective upbringing)
• c) heightened moral responsibility
• d) strict control
• e) autonomy

52. The psychological component of individuality is considered to be:

• a) temperament
• b) character
• c) personality
• d) morphophenotype
• e) archetype

53. Which does NOT belong to types of neuroses:

• a) hysterical
• b) neurasthenia
• c) schizophrenic
• d) hypochondriacal
• e) paranoid

54. Repeated repetition of the same movements is:

• a) stereotypy
• b) atony
• c) paraphrasia
• d) schizophasia
• e) aphasia

55. A state that occurs before the onset of a convulsive seizure, in which unusual sensations or hallucinations are possible, is:

• a) stereotypy
• b) abulia
• c) aura
• d) paraphrasia
• e) absence seizure

56. The patient presents complaints: "I'm like a dead person, I don't understand whether I'm alive or not, I've become someone else, it's me and not me at the same time." This state is called …..

• a) amnesia
• b) acalculia
• c) depersonalization
• d) disorientation
• e) aphasia

57. People of this type of accentuation are always in a good mood, with high activity and a high level of vitality:

• a) hyperthymic
• b) dysthymic
• c) cyclothymic
• d) sensitive
• e) epileptoid

58. Extreme changeability of mood, whose swings occur for the slightest reason - this is a characteristic of accentuation of the ….. type

• a) hyperthymic
• b) dysthymic
• c) labile
• d) epileptoid
• e) schizoid

59. Indecisiveness, a tendency toward excessive deliberation, anxiety, and apprehensiveness - this is a characteristic of accentuation of the ….. type

• a) hyperthymic
• b) hysteroid
• c) psychasthenic
• d) epileptoid
• e) unstable

60. Withdrawal, emotional coldness, restraint, and difficulties in communication are characteristic of the …..….. type of accentuation

• a) hyperthymic
• b) dysthymic
• c) schizoid
• d) epileptoid
• e) hysterical

61. The desire to always be the center of attention, egocentrism, and a tendency toward theatricality and posturing are characteristic of the ……… type of accentuation

• a) hyperthymic
• b) dysthymic
• c) labile
• d) hysteroid
• e) epileptoid

62. The type of upbringing that includes excessive attention and control on the part of adults, imposing their opinion on every issue, dictating every step, shielding from dangers, and cultivating caution, is denoted as:

• a) "family idol"
• b) overprotection
• c) "iron fist" (harsh discipline)
• d) neglect
• e) paradoxical communication

63. In accentuation of this type, inertia of mental activity, a tendency to accumulate emotions and explosiveness, and a very strong force of instincts are observed:

• a) dysthymic
• b) labile
• c) sensitive
• d) epileptoid
• e) hyperthymic

64. Not characteristic of neuroses is:

• a) preserved critical awareness of one's own condition
• b) pronounced, persistent impairment of intelligence
• c) amenable to correction and treatment
• d) dependence on psychogenic factors
• e) retreat into illness

65. An intense, irresistible fear of something is:

• a) abulia
• b) alexia
• c) phobia
• d) bulimia
• e) frustration

66. An obsessive fear of gaining weight and a conviction of being excessively overweight are characteristic of…

• a) phobia
• b) anorexia nervosa
• c) panic
• d) abulia
• e) aura

67. A 15-year-old girl considers herself "too fat, clumsy, and unattractive," although there are no external defects - this is a manifestation of:

• a) aphasia
• b) dysmorphophobia
• c) panic
• d) depersonalization
• e) phobia